Series 26 Practice Exam

Try our free Series 26 practice exam. The formal name of the Series 26 is the Investment Company and Variable Contracts Products Principal Exam. It is a licensing exam for professionals who wish to supervise employees who sell mutual funds, variable annuities, and variable life insurance. The exam tests candidates’ knowledge of regulatory requirements, sales practices, and financial instruments.

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Question 1

According to FINRA rules regarding associated persons, what would be the registration status of a registered representative who has been called up for active duty service in the US Military?

A
Special inactive status
B
Designated military exclusion
C
Temporary Termination
D
U-5 Military Termination
Question 1 Explanation: 
FINRA designates any registered person who is called up for active duty as someone who is on inactive status. Their requirements to do continuing education are put on hold and, when active duty ends, they are welcomed back into their registered rep status.
Question 2

In instances in which a customer will be engaging in a viatical settlement of their insurance policy, with which policy will FINRA have a compliance concern?

A
Ordinary life policy
B
Variable annuity policy
C
Variable Life policy
D
Term insurance with the viatical ‘rider’
Question 2 Explanation: 
Viatical settlements are applicable to Life Insurance products. FINRA’s only jurisdiction would have to do with Variable Life insurance, as Variable makes it a security.
Question 3

Under updated FINRA rules pertaining to communications with the public, these communications fall into which of the following categories?

I.    Retail communication

II.   Institutional communication

III.  3rd party material supplied to the member firm

IV.  Correspondence

A
All of these
B
I and II only
C
III and IV only
D
I, II and IV only
Question 3 Explanation: 
FINRA has divided communications into three categories: Retail Communication, Institutional Communication, and Correspondence.
Question 4

With regard to prospectuses to be furnished to public customers purchasing open-end investment companies, which of the following descriptions of the rules are most accurate?

A
Furnish a summary prospectus
B
Furnish a summary prospectus, and furnish the SAI if requested
C
Furnish the omitting prospectus
D
Furnish a prospectus upon the request of the customer
Question 4 Explanation: 
The Summary Prospectus is a requirement; it must be furnished to a prospect. If the prospectus wishes to also get a copy of the Statement of Additional Information (SAI), they are to be furnished the SAI upon request.
Question 5

Your member firm may become subject to FINRA's Taping Rule under which of the following circumstances?

A
When your firm has filed a quarterly complaint report containing more than 3 allegations of unauthorized trading by registered representatives in your office.
B
When your firm has 20% of more of your sales agents having been hired from disciplined firms.
C
When your firm is in its first year of business
D
None of the above
Question 5 Explanation: 
FINRA’s Taping Rule will come into play when 20% or more of a B/D's registered reps have previously worked for a disciplined firm.
Question 6

FINRA rules require that a member firm must, at a minimum, retain its complaint file for how long?

A
3 years
B
6 years
C
4 years
D
Lifetime of the brokerage firm
Question 6 Explanation: 
A member firm’s complaint file is a 4-year file.
Question 7

Your firm is engaged in offering retirement plan services to the public. You often recommend open-end investment company shares to your clientele as the most suitable way to begin investing in securities. Which of the following plans are considered non-qualified plans?

A
Individual Retirement Arrangements
B
403b plans
C
401k plans
D
Deferred compensation plans
Question 7 Explanation: 
Deferred compensation plans are considered non-qualified plans.
Question 8

When more than one individual wishes to open an account at a B/D, and the owners of the account shall have their share of the account pass to their estate in the event of death, the proper account type they’ll be directed to open is the:

A
Joint Account with rights of survivorship
B
Joint Account with Individual designation upon death
C
Tenancy in Common
D
Tenancy with rights of survivorship
Question 8 Explanation: 
Tenancy in Common accounts mandate that each co-owner of the account shall have their share of the account, upon their death, pass to their Estate.
Question 9

A registered rep is contacted by a client who instructs the RR to purchase $5,000 worth of the best performing growth fund which your firm makes available for sale. The rep can write up the order ticket for this client:

A
Only if the client puts the order in writing
B
Only if the order is approved by the Branch Manager
C
Only if the client has a discretionary account
D
Only if the RR explains breakpoints to this client before placing the order
Question 9 Explanation: 
Unless the customer specifically identifies which growth fund they want, this order would be a Discretionary Order and could not be filled until the customer gives the firm discretion over their account.
Question 10

None of the following qualify as securities as defined by the Securities & Exchange Commission with the exception of:

A
529 plan
B
501c3 plan
C
457 plan
D
All of the above plans are qualified
Question 10 Explanation: 
Only IRS Section 529 municipal fund securities are treated as securities by the SEC. One needs to be a registered rep to sell 529 plans to customers.
Question 11

Section 19 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 specifies that the net capital gains from portfolio transactions shall be distributed to a mutual fund’s shareholders:

A
At least quarterly
B
At least semi-annually
C
Annually
D
At the same frequency as mutual fund dividends are paid
Question 11 Explanation: 
Mutual fund capital gains distributions are to be made annually.
Question 12

The Securities & Exchange Act of 1934 contains a number of requirements for the contents of customer confirmations. Among them is the requirement to disclose:

A
Capacity of the B/D
B
Any conflicts of interest between the B/D and the security being sold
C
The rationale for recommending that particular security to the customer
D
All of these
Question 12 Explanation: 
All confirmations sent to customers must disclose whether the broker/dealer filled the trade in its capacity as a broker or as a dealer.
Question 13

One of your long-time reps has informed you that they have someone who wants to transfer their account to your firm. FINRA rules set forth the requirements as follows:

A
1 day for validation of the account and then 3 days to effect the transfer
B
1 day for validation of the account and then 5 days to effect the transfer
C
3 days for validation of the account and then 1 day to effect the transfer
D
5 days for validation of the account and then 1 day to effect the transfer
Question 13 Explanation: 
Account transfer requires the account be validated within 1 day of notification to the broker/dealer who will be losing the customer, and then that B/D has 3 days in which to effect the transfer of the customer’s money and securities in their account.
Question 14

According to the SEA of 1934, Regulation T, none of the below is eligible to be purchased on margin except:

A
Mutual fund shares
B
Regulation D private placement shares
C
Closed-end fund shares
D
None of these may be purchased on margin
Question 14 Explanation: 
Mutual funds must be paid for in full. A Regulation D private placement requires the purchasing customer to pay for their investment in full. However, since closed-end investment company shares are traded on the NYSE, they are "marginable," meaning they can be bought on credit.
Question 15

One of your registered reps has had a written customer complaint filed against them. The complaint alleges the rep made an unsuitable recommendation of some $50,000 in the client’s account. How should the incident be handled, according to FINRA’s Code of Arbitration?

A
It will be handled through non-binding mediation
B
It will be handled by simplified arbitration with one arbitrator
C
It will be handled by an arbitration hearing with 3 arbitrators
D
It will be handled by a court of competent jurisdiction
Question 15 Explanation: 
The FINRA Code of Arbitration calls for complaints of $50,000 or less to be handled by Simplified Arbitration proceedings, in which there is a single person in the role of Arbitrator. The benefit on this procedure is that neither the client nor the brokerage firm have to appear in person in an office building downtown. It’s all arbitrated through electronic means, telephone, text, and documents.
Question 16

By signing Form U-4, each of your newly-hired agents have agreed to which of the following?

A
To submit all complaints to FINRA
B
To agree to consent to service of process
C
To have disclosed all prior employers
D
To have disclosed all prior residences
Question 16 Explanation: 
Consent to service of process is among the agreements upon signing Form U-4. The other answers are not part of the U-4 procedure.
Question 17

When one of your reps appears to have numerous customers purchasing mutual fund shares on the day prior to the ex-date, you are likely looking at which of the following violations of FINRA regulations?

A
Breakpoint selling
B
Tax-loss transactions
C
Short-term trading of mutual funds
D
Selling dividends
Question 17 Explanation: 
“Selling dividends” is the unethical practice of convincing customers that buying right before the ex-dividend date of the company’s shares provides a financial benefit to the customer. If the rep fails to disclose to the customer what purchasing on the ex-date will provide them with, the rep is in violation of FINRA’s full disclosure requirements.
Question 18

As an Investment Company/Variable Contract member firm engaging in subscription selling exclusively, SEC rules set a minimum net capital for the firm of:

A
$100,000
B
$50,000
C
$25,000
D
$5,000
Question 18 Explanation: 
A mutual fund "subscription only" brokerage firm has a minimum net capital requirement of only $5,000.
Question 19

At the time of new account opening, your firm’s AML registered principal will ordinarily be the individual who will check the client’s identity against which of the following?

A
The Department of Justice list of known criminals
B
The FBI list of known financial criminals
C
The OFAC list
D
The FINRA list of known financial criminals
Question 19 Explanation: 
OFAC is the Treasury Department’s Office of Financial Asset Control. They maintain a list of all individuals and entities which cannot open a brokerage account in the US.
Question 20

One of your reps has a mutual fund client who wishes to invest $15,000 into one of the funds you are recommending. The one they want to buy has a $25,000 breakpoint.  Your rep writes the order ticket for the $15,000; however, when you get the executed ticket for managerial review, you would be looking to make sure your rep isn’t engaging in:

A
A breakpoint sale
B
A below breakpoint sale
C
Mutual fund short-term trading
D
Excessively sized transactions
Question 20 Explanation: 
FINRA calls it a "breakpoint sale" if the registered rep sells a large volume of mutual fund shares to a customer without mentioning the availability of the 13-month Letter of Intent by which the client can get the reduced sales charge at the next higher breakpoint. This client might easily be able to come up with an additional 10K over the next 13 months to read the $25,000 breakpoint.
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